Ham Radio Exam Questions- Extra Class

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LEVEL 3: Extra Class License, Exam Requirement: 50-question Extra written exam (Element 4).

General licensees may upgrade to Extra Class by passing a 50-question multiple-choice examination. No Morse code test is required. In addition to some of the more obscure regulations, the test covers specialized operating practices, advanced electronics theory and radio equipment design. Non-licensed individuals must pass Element 2, Element 3 and Element 4 written exams to earn an Extra License. The FCC grants exam element 3 credit to individuals that previously held certain older types of licenses. Find valid forms of Examination Element Credit.

Extra Class Question

Only correct answers! I have found that if you read only the question and correct answer, it is the easiest way to pass the exam. No lengthy books, no flash cards, and no classes, just read through the question and correct answer one after another and go take the exam.

E1A

E1A01 - When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

  • D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge

E1A02 - When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

  • D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge

E1A03 - With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a station calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

  • C. No, the sideband will extend beyond the band edge

E1A04 - With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

  • C. No, the sideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment

E1A05 - What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

  • C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole

E1A06 - Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

  • B. At the center frequency of the channel

E1A07 - Which amateur band requires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies?

  • D. 60 meter band

E1A08 - If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

  • B. The control operator of the originating station

E1A09 - What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

  • A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it

E1A10 - If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

  • A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft

E1A11 - Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

  • B. Any FCC-issued amateur license

E1A12 - With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?

  • C. No, one of the sidebands of the CW signal will be out of the band

E1A13 - Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

  • B. Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation

E1A14 - What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

  • D. 2.8 kHz

E1B

E1B01 - Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

  • D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

E1B02 - Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?

  • D. The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture

E1B03 - Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

  • A. 1 mile

E1B04 - What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

  • C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC

E1B05 - What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

  • C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory

E1B06 - Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

  • A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules

E1B07 - What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

  • B. 1.0

E1B08 - What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

  • D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

E1B09 - Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

  • C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served

E1B10 - What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

  • A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator

E1B11 - What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

  • A. At least 43 dB below

E1C

E1C01 - What is a remotely controlled station?

  • D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link

E1C02 - What is meant by automatic control of a station?

  • A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point

E1C03 - How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?

  • B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point

E1C04 - What is meant by IARP?

  • A. An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas

E1C05 - When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

  • A. Never

E1C06 - Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

  • C. A control operator must be present at the control point

E1C07 - What is meant by local control?

  • C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator

E1C08 - What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

  • B. 3 minutes

E1C09 Which of these ranges of frequencies is available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?

  • D. 29.500 MHz - 29.700 MHz

E1C10 - What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

  • B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations

E1C11 - Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the U.S.?

  • A. CEPT agreement

E1C12 - What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

  • C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature

E1C13 - Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

  • C. You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221

E1D

E1D01 - What is the definition of the term telemetry?

  • A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument

E1D02 - What is the amateur satellite service?

  • C. A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites

E1D03 - What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

  • B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station

E1D04 - What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

  • A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space

E1D05 - What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

  • C. Any class with appropriate operator privileges

E1D06 - Which of the following is a requirement of a space station?

  • A. The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC

E1D07 - Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

  • A. Only the 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands

E1D08 - Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

  • D. 2 meters

E1D09 - Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

  • B. 70 cm and 13 cm

E1D10 - Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?

  • B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

E1D11 - Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

  • D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

E1E

E1E01 - What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?

  • D. 3

E1E02 - Where are the questions for all written U.S. amateur license examinations listed?

  • C. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs

E1E03 - What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

  • C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations

E1E04 - Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

  • D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner

E1E05 - What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

  • B. Minimum passing score of 74%

E1E06 - Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

  • C. Each administering VE

E1E07 - What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

  • B. Immediately terminate the candidate’s examination

E1E08 - To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

  • C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules

E1E09 - What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

  • A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant

E1E10 - What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

  • C. They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions

E1E11 - What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

  • B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements

E1E12 - What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

  • A. Return the application document to the examinee

E1E13 - Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?

  • B. Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs

E1E14 - For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

  • A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license

E1F

E1F01 - On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

  • B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz

E1F02 - What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?

  • C. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges

E1F03 - Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

  • A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station

E1F04 - Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

  • A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the U.S.-Canadian border

E1F05 - Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

  • D. 420 MHz - 430 MHz

E1F06 - Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

  • A. To provide for experimental amateur communications

E1F07 - When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

  • D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications

E1F08 - Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

  • A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules

E1F09 - Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?

  • D. All of these choices are correct: A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions, The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions, and The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication

E1F10 - What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

  • C. 10 W

E1F11 - Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

  • D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power

E1F12 - Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

  • B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

E2A

E2A01 - What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

  • C. From south to north

E2A02 - What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

  • A. From north to south

E2A03 - What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

  • C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth

E2A04 - What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

  • B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands

E2A05 - What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

  • D. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges

E2A06 - On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

  • A. 435 MHz - 438 MHz

E2A07 - Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

  • D. All of these choices are correct: FM and CW, SSB and SSTV, PSK and Packet

E2A08 - Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

  • B. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users

E2A09 - What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

  • A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands

E2A10 - Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?

  • A. Because the satellite is spinning

E2A11 - What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

  • B. A circularly polarized antenna

E2A12 - What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?

  • D. By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite

E2A13 - What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

  • B. Geostationary

E2A14 - What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

  • C. APRS

E2B

E2B01 - How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

  • A. 30

E2B02 - How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

  • C. 525

E2B03 - How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

  • D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next

E2B04 - What is blanking in a video signal?

  • B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top

E2B05 - Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?

  • C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry

E2B06 - What is vestigial sideband modulation?

  • A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted

E2B07 - What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

  • B. Chroma

E2B08 - Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?

  • D. All of these choices are correct: Frequency-modulated sub-carrier, A separate VHF or UHF audio link, Frequency modulation of the video carrier

E2B09 - What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

  • D. No other hardware is needed

E2B10 - Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

  • A. 3 KHz

E2B11 - What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

  • B. To identify the SSTV mode being used
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